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Joel Walbert's avatar

Call me skeptical (because I very much am for various reasons) but the DoE? How is this related to what that agency does? Under what circumstance would they even be involved?

Dr. Germ Scary's avatar

The most likely scenario is that there was no distinct disease called Covid-19 with very specific symptoms caused by a novel coronavirus called SARS-CoV-2. There was absolutely no justification to believe that a pneumonia with the 2 most common symptoms (cough & fever) constituted a new disease. The 1st cases in China actually list cough and fever as the only 2 symptoms!! Loss of taste & smell was never a symptom in China and was added months later in the US. So it’s the same disease but the symptoms are completely different in China & the US? It doesn’t work like that and let’s not forget that the flu “disappeared”. Why would a novel lab leaked coronavirus cause the flu to disappear?? What’s more likely: There is a new disease and the flu disappeared or could they simply be calling the flu and every other illness “COVID” ?? The latter.

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